Did the apostle John, by giving this statement, mean to communicate that Jesus was God? THE God? The one, Yaweh, of whom the Jews say, "...the Lord your God is one God..."?

 

What if.... we had a commentary written by the apostle John himself explaining precisely what it is he's communicating? Well, we do! John gives his commentary on this very episode. In verse 30 and 31 he says,
 

• Now Jesus did many other signs in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these are written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing you may have life in his name.
   

He says Jesus did OTHER signs - other than what? Other than the sign of Jesus appearing to Thomas, having Thomas put his hand in his side and to see Jesus' nail-scarred hands, thereby proving his resurrection, which resulted in Thomas' exclamation. Read it for yourself. Verse 30 and 31 immediately follow verse 28.

 

So John says that this episode, as well as many others, is written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God - not one word about Jesus actually being God. Who ya gonna believe? Those who say John meant something other than what John himself says he meant, or are you going to believe what John himself says about what he meant?

 

The above is very compelling in my opinion and is enough to show that this passage does NOT call Jesus THE God, Yaweh, who is one, and who ALONE created the heavens and the earth. It is clear that John (as well as Thomas and all the other disciples) does not use the word "theos" (God) the way we do. However, it can be difficult to abandon a centuries-old paradigm, so for those who are interested: more information and argumentation can be found here.

 

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